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#1
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Dear All, My newbie question is about G41, G42 Is it possible to mill a hole 8.4 mm in diameter with 6.5 mm endmill using G41 (G42)? The hole is 20 mm deep. If so, could you, please give the sample code. I am using FANUC-OM control. Thank you very much in advance. Yours, Igor Kozlov
__________________ With kindest regards, Igor Kozlov |
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#2
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| Igor - I really don't see how you could do this...the diameter of the tool is too large. You'd need to use a tool whose diameter is less than half the size of the hole (when you enable the G41 (or G42) the tool will step out the distance of the radius). Maybe someone else has an idea? Jen
__________________ (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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#3
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| You don't have to use full tool radius comp, you can use wear comp instead. This means program the toolpath at the proper offset for a given tool, and then use compensation for tweaking the exact diameter you get after you trial cut it. The amount of tool movement when the wear comp amount is applied is not large, and the approach should easily fit inside that hole (with enough magnification to see what you are doing
__________________ First you get good, then you get fast. Then grouchiness sets in. (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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#4
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| Many of us are used to drawing an offset ourselves, confusing the issue here. Using cutter comp your toolpath would be, if drawn, the actual outline of the hole. Thus the machine would do the offsetting meaning the cutter would only move over the size of it's radius, allowing it to still easily fit inside of the 8.2 mm hole. Yes it could be done very easily. |
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#5
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| What he said ... .2559 inch dia end mill cutting .31496 inch dia hole. % O0001 (MILL HOLE INCH UNITS) G90 G17 G40 G49 G80 (CONTOUR) T1 M6 G0 G54 X0. Y0. S1000 M3 G43 H1 Z2. /M8 Z.1 G1 Z-.196 F.5 G41 D1 X-.0295 F1. G3 X.0295 I.0295 J0. X-.0295 I-.0295 J0. G1 G40 X0. Z-.392 F.5 G41 D1 X-.0295 F1. G3 X.0295 I.0295 J0. X-.0295 I-.0295 J0. G1 G40 X0. Z-.588 F.5 G41 D1 X-.0295 F1. G3 X.0295 I.0295 J0. X-.0295 I-.0295 J0. G1 G40 X0. Z-.784 F.5 G41 D1 X-.0295 F1. G3 X.0295 I.0295 J0. X-.0295 I-.0295 J0. G1 G40 X0. G0 Z2. G91 G28 Z0. M9 M30 % CAM teh "metricschmetric" You could also use helical interpolation (G3/G2 with a Z value).
__________________ Wee aim to please ... You aim to ... PLEASE. |
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#7
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__________________ First you get good, then you get fast. Then grouchiness sets in. (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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#9
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| CAMmando's code is using a small radius toolpath which is an offset path from the hole circumference. At least that is what I see.
__________________ First you get good, then you get fast. Then grouchiness sets in. (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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#10
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| HU, From what I see, Cammando's D1 offset value would be 0. He has taken the difference between the hole diameter and the tool diameter, divided by two and that equals the x-.0295.
__________________ (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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#11
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'Rekd
__________________ Matt San Diego, Ca ___ o o o_ [l_,[_____], l---L - □lllllll□- ( )_) ( )_)--)_) (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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#12
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__________________ First you get good, then you get fast. Then grouchiness sets in. (Note: The opinions expressed in this post are my own and are not necessarily those of CNCzone and its management) |
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